There is authority in this. If Christ, who said "all authority has been given unto me." is the Word (Bible), as John says, than this means that the Biblical meaning is unchanged, that Paul through Christ's authority ordained that only men could preach, and that it was meant to apply to His church no matter what century.
A man saying he has authority doesn't mean he has authority to make that claim. It's all hand waving and I find it utterly unacceptable from any reasonable standpoint. It's effectively saying "well I have authority because I do and you just have to live with it". So if the meaning is unchanged, does that mean I can take it word for word quite literally? Let me just point some things out to you that suggest strongly that the bible is out of context for todays world:
-Leviticus 25:44 states that I may possess slaves, both male and female.
-Leviticus 15: 19-24 states I am allowed no contact with a woman while she is in her period of Menstrual uncleanliness.
-Exodus 35:2 clearly states working on the Sabbath means you should be put to death.
-Leviticus 11:10 states that eating shellfish is an abomination.
-Leviticus 21:20 states that I may not approach the altar of God if I have a defect in my sight- I'm pretty fucked with less than 20/20, hey?
-Leviticus 19:27 States that it is forbidden to trim hair, especially around the temples. How long is your hair?
-Leviticus 19:19 forbids planting two different crops in the same field, as it does wearing garments made of two different kinds of thread (cotton/polyester blend, for example).
I am looking forward to justification for how the above is still relevant and apply to todays world.
http://ancienthebrewpoetry.typepad....response-to-ellen-van-wolde-on-genesis-1.html
http://www.ancient-hebrew.org/40_genesis1.html
First off, if "Bara" means "to separate", then how does that fit under the context of Genesis 1:27, where "Bara" is used to say God created Man?
Two genders. "Ged separated Man" would fit within the construct of God making women FROM men, separating the two.
Also, why wouldn't Moses use "Badal" to suggest God separated the heavens from the earth when "Badal" is the hebrew word meant "to separate"? That makes no sense. With all do respect Van Wolde must have a great education, but it appears she just wanted to stir up the media.
It was a bit controversial, but certainly interesting that there may be some mistranslation within our modern bibles.
Difference in account isn't the same thing as difference in context. In fact, back in the days of the Bible, slight difference in account meant that the "story tellers" weren't collaborating to produce a false story
Well yeah, considering many of the gospels weren't even ALIVE when Jesus was nailed to the cross. I'd think maybe they did some plagiarism though, it's not too hard to pick up someones work from 60 years earlier and rewrite it in your own words. It's the "Purple monkey dishwasher" effect, where stories change over generation gaps.
So in actuality, the stories of Mathew, Mark, Luke, and John having slight contradictions meant that they have the same context... This is why i'm stressing we can't read 1st century writing through 21st century thinking, because things get distorted.
If you cannot read the 1st century writing through 21st century thinking because it gets distorted, in what way is it relevant and within context to us? How can we possibly take the correct meaning from it? That right there is pretty open and shut if you ask me.
I fail to see the logic in this reasoning. You seem to be using the logic of "well everyone else is doing it, so that must mean X is true/false". It doesn't work when you are under the authority of your parents, and it doesn't work under the authority of your heavenly father and your savior whom all authority has been given.
Jesus was a man living in a society. Son of God or not, he grew up in those sociological conditions and as such was not beyond participating in their norms. Show me evidence to the contrary.
Again, under what authority are you to subject the Bible to this conclusion?
You need authority to question the bible? That is pretty much a perfect demonstration of indoctrination demonstrated by you, if that's indeed what you mean. Just because a book says it is correct does not mean it is correct. Just because a man claims to be the son of god and convinces people of it, it does not make it true. Just because a book claims to have authority doesn't mean anything and it certainly doesn't mean I am in need of equal or greater authority to question it. There is zero reason that I can see as to why I shouldn't challenge this using the twin cannons of common sense and the scientific method.
Actually, in the exact same way the bible does it, I am going to claim that I have authority. God told me I have authority over the bible, any interpretation of the bible, any of its readers and especially you. Because of this, I am the word of God and officially have the authority to do and say whatever I please without question. Do you see how ludicrous it sounds coming from me? Well that's exactly how it sounds coming from the bible and from you (about the bible). Asking me what Authority I have is pretty much trying to curtail the points of the debate and go over my head and that is just not reasonable.
Edit: Chocolate chip cookies, have you seen the lineage of Jesus? It goes by father, each gospel giving a different story that can be dramatically different. Then we get to Joseph and OOOPS looks like he's not the father so it was an exercise in futility.